Generalizations and the stupidity of linguists
Let’s say you’re a person studying language, and you observe a word, or a construction, in some language, and think that it is interesting for some reason or another. After much study and hard work, you come to the conclusion that this single word or construction must be polysemous. That is to say, you decide that its distribution in the syntax, or its semantics, or its patterns of usage are such that there is no “it” per se, and you are actually looking at two (or seven) distinct forms. Or, say that you observe some pattern of sounds among the lexical items of a language, and notice that there is some correlation between (say) syllable-per-lexeme count and vowel harmony, or between certain stretches of segments and certain types of semantics (in the former case, perhaps you are on drugs and need to reexamine the data; in the latter case, perhaps you look at words in English that start with gl, or ideophones in Japanese that start with voiced velars). In either case, you think: wow, this is an amazing observation. Perhaps I can even call it a generalization! But then you say: shucks–this generalization doesn’t “follow” “logically” from any “principles” of the grammar (perhaps you are spitting upon uttering each of those words, or perhaps not).
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